ACLS Principles Flashcard 3
Rationale
B. Rationale: Coronary artery disease (CAD) and acute coronary syndromes make up about 80% of sudden cardiac death. This is often the case even when the individual does not have a known prior history of CAD, as death can be the presenting sign of disease. While certain risk factors exist, many people have no obvious risk factors. Valvular disease and cardiomyopathy make up a smaller percentage (10% and 15%, respectively) of the underlying etiologies of sudden cardiac death. Congestive heart failure is increasingly becoming a cause of sudden cardiac death. However, many of these patients will have underlying coronary artery disease, as well.
Question
What is the most common underlying cause of sudden cardiac death?
a. Congestive heart failure
b. Coronary artery disease
c. Valvular heart disease
d. Cardiomyopathy
Answer
b. Coronary artery disease
Rationale
C. Rationale: A sudden change in vital signs may alert the astute clinician of an impending emergent event. Specific criteria can suggest the need for a rapid response, including hypertensive emergencies, significant hypotension, airway emergencies, sudden changes in level of consciousness, seizures, significant bradycardia (< 40 bpm) or tachycardia (> 140 bpm) or bradypnea (< 6 breaths/min) or tachypnea (> 30 breaths/min). Mild responses, especially if expected, should not trigger rapid responses.
Question
Which of the following changes in vital signs is part of the specific criteria that may suggest an impending cardiac arrest?
a. A heart rate of 120 bpm in a patient who is anxious about a venipuncture.
b. A respiratory rate of 9 breaths/min in a patient using incentive spirometry.
c. A blood pressure of 185/110 mm Hg in a patient withdrawing from benzodiazepines.
d. Subjective sleepiness in a patient who is on oral opiate medications.
Answer
c. A blood pressure of 185/110 mm Hg in a patient withdrawing from benzodiazepines.
Rationale
C. Rationale: The system of care is composed of a structure, process, system, and outcome. These elements are created to improve the delivery of healthcare systems, such as advanced cardiac life support.
Question
Which of the following is part of the taxonomy of systems of care?
a. protocols
b. engineering controls
c. structure
d. quality assurance
Answer
c. structure
Rationale
D. Rationale: High-quality CPR involves chest compressions delivered at a rate of 100–120/minute at a depth of 2.0–2.4 inches, allowing full chest recoil after each compression, minimizing interruptions to chest compression, and avoiding excessive ventilations.
Question
Which one of the following is a component of high-quality CPR:
a. not allowing full chest recoil after each compression
b. ventilating as fast as possible
c. delivering compressions at a depth of 1 to 1.5 inches
d. delivering 100–120 chest compressions per minute
Answer
d. delivering 100–120 chest compressions per minute
Rationale
A. Rationale: Partial recoil between compressions is not a part of high-quality CPR. There should be full chest recoil to allow the heart to refill adequately before the next compression. This helps maintain cardiac output as well as coronary and brain perfusion during compressions. Partial recoil suggests poor quality compressions or responder fatigue. Components of high-quality CPR including avoiding overventilation, switching responder roles after 2 minutes, quick and strong compressions, and minimized interruptions to compressions.
Question
Which one of the following is not a part of high-quality CPR?
a. Partial recoil between compressions
b. Avoiding overventilation
c. Quick and strong compressions
d. Minimizing interruption to compressions
Answer
a. Partial recoil between compressions
Rationale
A. Rationale: The ACLS course showcases nine clinical conditions designated as CASES in the ACLS provider manual. These clinical conditions include the following:
● Respiratory arrest
● Acute Coronary Syndromes
● Acute Stroke
● VF/pulseless VT
● Asystole
● Pulseless Electrical Activity
● Bradycardia
● Tachycardia (stable and unstable)
● Immediate Post-Cardiac Arrest Care
Question
Which one of the following is not included in the ACLS provider course?
a. Renal failure
b. Respiratory arrest
c. Bradycardia
d. Immediate Post-Cardiac Arrest Care
Answer
a. Renal failure
Rationale
B. Rationale: If there is no access to an ECG, the advanced cardiac life support provider may use an AED instead. Remember that if the cardiac arrest is secondary to a shockable rhythm, then immediate defibrillation is warranted, provided that interruptions to chest compressions are minimized.
Question
You are a new paramedic who arrived first to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest secondary to choking. You do not have access to an ECG, but a bystander grabbed an AED off the wall. You are performing high-quality CPR. What is your next course of action?
a. Attach a pulse oximeter to the patient.
b. Attach the AED to the patient.
c. Continue with high-quality CPR until the patient is brought to the ED.
d. Establish an intravenous line.
Answer
b. Attach the AED to the patient.
Rationale
B. Rationale: For the single-rescuer approach, the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio in CPR is 30:2.
Question
You are helping an out-of-hospital adult cardiac arrest patient by performing single rescuer CPR. What is the ratio of chest compressions to ventilations in CPR for this case?
a. 2:1
b. 30:2
c. 10:1
d. 12:2
Answer
b. 30:2
Rationale
A. Rationale: AHA guidelines recommend a 1 mg epinephrine (1:10,000 dilution) intravenous bolus injection. A 1:1,000 dilution is too concentrated and is reserved for anaphylactic shock delivered intramuscularly. Defibrillation is not an option for pulseless electrical activity.
Question
You are resuscitating a patient in the ICU. He is in cardiac arrest with pulseless electrical activity. The patient is intubated and has intravenous access in the left upper extremity. What is the next treatment of choice after 2 minutes of high-quality CPR?
a. epinephrine 1 mg (1:10,000 dilution) intravenous route
b. epinephrine 1 mg (1:1,000 dilution) intramuscular route
c. epinephrine 2 mg (1:1000 dilution) endotracheal route
d. immediate defibrillation
Answer
a. epinephrine 1 mg (1:10,000 dilution) intravenous route